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Is a miscue ALWAYS a foul?

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  • Is a miscue ALWAYS a foul?

    An opponent called a foul on a miscue.
    Cueball hit object ball, however, he said that the distinctive sound of a miscue is caused by a double-strike on the cueball!
    Is this true?


    =o\

    Noel

  • #2
    I don't believe so.

    I think it probably often is, but that's not the same as saying always.

    If you think of those scenarios where a player wants to just tap the cue-ball onto an almost-touching red, where he does a 'deliberate miscue', I think that is a fair stroke. I don't see why the same thing couldn't be done accidentally.

    If accompanied by a 'distinctive noise' then it could be deemed either (a) double-hit or (b) hitting with the ferrule rather than the tip – both of which would be a foul – but I', not convinced that by definition all miscues are fouls.

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    • #3
      I wouldn't have said always - yeah if you completely slipped off and tapped the white with the side of your cue, but calling an average miscue a foul... it just seems to me like a very desperate way to get 4 points out of someone, to me at least..

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      • #4
        I recall in one of O'Sullivan's recent matches against Mark Selby(probably in 2009 masters final if my memory serves me right), he miscued when trying to pot a straight yellow with screw, the cue ball jumped and hit the yellow although yellow didnt go in however NOT a foul.

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        • #5
          Yeah... An average miscue is technically usually a foul (as the ball does usually touch the ferrule or shaft), but it's very very very rarely called as such, if ever, mostly because you can't really tell if it was for sure. The way I see it is that having a miscue is propably just enough of a punishment as it is, you very rarely pot the ball and get on anything after a miscue. Not to mention that its not uncommon to miss altogether.
          IBK-81 | Inkeroisten Biljardikerho -81 | Billiards Club of Inkeroinen -81

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          • #6
            Originally Posted by The Statman View Post
            If you think of those scenarios where a player wants to just tap the cue-ball onto an almost-touching red, where he does a 'deliberate miscue', I think that is a fair stroke. I don't see why the same thing couldn't be done accidentally.
            Is the shot where you deliberately miscue when the cueballs close to a red a foul?
            I've had the shot played against me a few times and while it works pretty well deliberately playing to miscue always seemed a bit dodgy (like it should be a foul).
            New Zealands biggest snooker fan

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